EA Sports College Football 27 Guide: The Ultimate Road To Glory Quiz Cheat Sheet

Let's be completely honest with ourselves: you didn't buy a football simulator so you could take a midterm exam on bug biology.

In Road to Glory, your academic eligibility is a constant threat hanging over your head. If your grades tank, your coach will staple you to the bench. To keep your GPA afloat, the game randomly hits you with pop quizzes spanning incredibly random subjects. Dropping the AI sliders using my EA Sports College Football 27 difficulty settings guide might make the opposing linebackers slower, but it absolutely will not make these math questions any easier.

You need to answer at least half of the questions correctly to secure a passing grade. Passing these quizzes naturally boosts your Academic rating without forcing you to burn your precious weekly energy. If you've already read my College Football 27 Road To Glory player upgrade guide, you know that saving your energy for training and leadership is the only way to climb the depth chart.

To save you from academic suspension, I compiled the answers to every single question the game can throw at you. Hit Ctrl+F (or Command+F on Mac), type in a few words from your screen, and grab your free A.

The Complete RTG Answer Key

The game pulls from a massive database of questions regardless of your major or position. I tossed the Spanish questions at the very top because typing out the special characters mid-quiz is an absolute nightmare.

Spanish

• ¿Qué palabra es una preposición? Bajo

• ¿Qué tipo de palabra es “rápidamente”? Adverbio

• ¿Cuál es el significado de la expresión “estar en las nubes”? Estar muy distraído

• ¿Cuál de estas palabras es un adverbio de cantidad? Bastante

• ¿Cómo se llama el modo que se usa para expresar deseos, dudas o emociones? Subjuntivo

• ¿Cuál es la forma correcta del futuro perfecto del verbo “comer” en yo? Comía

• ¿Cuál es el pretérito imperfecto del verbo "ver" en la forma nosotros? Veíamos

• ¿Cuál de estas palabras no pertenece al campo semántico de la cocina? Almohada

• ¿Cómo se dice “maybe” en español? Quizás

• ¿Cuál de estas expresiones significa “right now”? Ahora mismo

• ¿Qué tiempo verbal se usa en la frase “Si yo hubiera sabido...”? Pluscuamperfecto del subjuntivo

• ¿Qué palabra es un sinónimo de "alegría"? Felicidad

• ¿Cuál es el gerundio del verbo leer? Leyendo

• ¿Qué significa la palabra "amenazar"? Advertir con daño

• ¿Cuál es un ejemplo de un modismo español? Llover a cántaros

• ¿Cuál de estas palabras es un sustantivo abstracto? Esperanza

• ¿Cuál es el antónimo de “barato”? Fácil

• ¿Qué pronombre de objeto directo corresponde con “nosotros”? Nos

• ¿Cuál es un ejemplo de una oración pasiva? Se vendieron todas las entradas

• ¿Cómo se llama el tiempo verbal usado en “habríamos llegado”? Conditional perfecto

• ¿Cuál es el subjuntivo del verbo "tener" en la forma yo? Tenga

History of American Football

• Which team did NOT have a Doak Walker Award winner from 1990 to 2020? Michigan State

• How many "Wide Right" games were there between Miami and Florida State from 1990-2000? 3

• Which teams played in the "Fifth Down Game"? Missouri & Colorado

• Wide Right I was a game between which two undefeated teams in the 1990s? Miami & Florida State

• Which team did NOT have a Heisman Trophy winner in the 1960s? Nebraska

• Which of these teams had the most Belitnikoff Award winners from 2000-2020? Each team had 2 during that span

• Which team did NOT have a Doak Walker Award winner from 2000-2010? Ohio State

• Which team lost to their in-state rival on a missed field goal four times from 1991-2002? Florida State

• Which year did the Big Ten officially expand to include Penn State's football team? 1993

• Who played in the "Game of the Century" in 1971? Nebraska vs Oklahoma

• Which of these years did Syracuse have a Heisman Trophy winner? 1961

• Which of these teams hosted a College Football Playoff game in 2024? Penn State

• The first college football game broadcast on radio occurred in what year? 1921

• What was the significance of the 1996 season? First full season with overtime rules

• What major innovation in college football broadcasting was first used during the 1963 Army-Navy game? Instant replay

• Which rule change was first introduced in 1958? Two-point conversion after touchdown

• Which team did NOT have back-to-back Doak Walker Award winners from 1990 to 2020? Stanford

• How many times did Wisconsin have a Doak Walker Award winner from 2010-2020? 4

• Which team claimed themselves national champions after finishing the season undefeated in 2017? UCF

• Which two teams played in 2017 and 2018, with the same result and score occurring both times? Tennessee & Missouri

• Which decade did Ohio State NOT have a Heisman Trophy winner in? 1960s

• Which major rule change eliminated ties in college football regular-season games? Overtime adoption

• What year did Georgia Southern and Appalachian State first play? 1932

• College football celebrated its 100th anniversary in which year? 1969

• What year did Cal beat Stanford on a game-winning return while the Cardinal's band was on the field? 1982

• Who was Florida's opponent when their defense intentionally gave up a touchdown by "flopping" to the ground so the team's quarterback could take the top spot in all-time passing yards? Miami

• All of these schools below were upset as a top-10 team during the chaotic 2007-2008 college football season except one. Which team was not? Florida State

• Which school did NOT have a Heisman Trophy winner from 2000 to 2005? Ohio State

• The infamous "Kick Six" game in 2013 was between which two teams? Auburn & Alabama

• Which years between 2010 and 2020 had a non-quarterback win a Heisman Trophy? 2015 & 2020

• Which conference title game in 2009 was decided by a game-winning field goal after 1 second was added back to the clock? Big 12

• Which team won back-to-back games to start the 2015 season on Hail Mary attempts? BYU

• How many players have won the Heisman Trophy twice? 1

• Which 2018 contest included 146 total points? Texas A&M vs LSU

• How many SEC players won a Heisman Trophy from the years of 2010 to 2015? 3

• Which chaotic college football season saw top 10 teams lose 29 times, the No. 1 team lose four times, and the No. 2 team lose seven times? 2007

• Georgia Tech forced and recovered a goal-line fumble in the end zone to knock off No. 15 Florida State in 2008. Which title below has been given to this game? Miracle on North Avenue

• Which year did Texas A&M have a Heisman Trophy winner? 2012

• College football turned 50 years old in what year? 1919

• Which team had a Heisman Trophy winner in 2000? Florida State

• Which Iron Bowl contest saw Alabama winning thanks to a 4th-and-goal touchdown from the 31-yard line? 2023

• Which bowl game is known as "The Granddaddy of Them All"? Rose Bowl

• How many players have won back-to-back Heisman trophies? 1

• How many SEC players won a Heisman Trophy from the years of 2005 to 2010? 3

• When was the first Red River Rivalry game? 1900

• Which position has won the most Heisman Trophies since 2000? QB

• Which year did a two-way player win the Heisman Trophy? 2024

• The "Bluegrass Miracle" game that saw LSU beat Kentucky on a 74-yard game-winning touchdown pass occurred in which year? 2002

• Which team did NOT have a Heisman Trophy winner from 2000-2005? Alabama

• When did Florida and Florida State first play? 1958

• Which year did a Wide Receiver win a Heisman Trophy between 2000 and 2010? None of the above

• How many non-QBs won the Heisman Trophy from 2005 to 2010? 2

• Which two opponents played in a game where the home crowd's reaction was so loud it registered on a seismograph? Auburn & LSU

• Which team defeated Northwestern on a game-winning Hail Mary in 2013? Nebraska

• Which team had 3 Heisman Trophy winners in a 4-year span from 2002 to 2005? USC

• Which team knocked off No. 9 Florida State in a 2015 kick-six as time expired? Georgia Tech

• How many quarterbacks were awarded the Heisman Trophy from 2015 to 2020? 4

• Which position has NOT won a Heisman Trophy since 2000? EDGE/LB

• When was the first year Clemson and Florida State played? 1970

• College football celebrated its 150th anniversary in which year? 2019

• What year did a Middle Linebacker win a Heisman trophy? None of the above

• The Prayer at Jordan-Hare saw Auburn beat which team on a game-winning 73-yard Hail Mary? Georgia

• Which team played Oklahoma in an infamous 2016 shootout where the starting quarterbacks racked up a combined 1,279 passing yards? Texas Tech

• Which year did Michigan State beat Michigan on a game-winning punt block for a TD? 2015

• The first SEC Championship was in 1992. What was that final score? Alabama 28 Florida 21

• Which teams played in the first SEC championship game? Florida vs Alabama

• Which team lost to Clemson in the 2015-2016 College Football Playoff Semifinals? Oklahoma

• What's the longest win streak in the rivalry between Texas and Texas A&M since 2000? 6 - Texas

• Who beat 1-seed Alabama in the Sugar Bowl to advance to the inaugural College Football Playoff National Championship during the 2014-2015 season? Ohio State

• Who won the National Championship during the 2003-2004 season? LSU

• Which of these mascots represents a team that made the jump to the FBS in 2025? Fightin' Blue Hens

• Which conference was the first to host a championship game? SEC

• Which team lost to Alabama in the 2016-2017 College Football Playoff Semifinals? Washington

• Which team lost to Georgia in the 2022-2023 College Football Playoff Semifinals? Ohio State

• Where was the first SEC championship game? Birmingham

• Who was the 2025-2026 CFP National Champion? Indiana

• Which team installed blue turf on their field in 1986? Boise State

• Which team lost to LSU in 2020 after a player threw an opponent's cleat, leading to a penalty and a game-winning field goal? Florida

• Who won the National Championship during the 2023-2024 season? Michigan

• Who won the National Championship during the 2018-2019 season? Clemson

• What was the combined point total of an infamous 2016 shootout between conference foes Oklahoma and Texas Tech? 125

• What offense did Appalachian State use to defeat Michigan in the 2007 season opener? Spread

• What year did Miami win its first national championship? 1983

• How many combined touchdown passes were thrown in an infamous 66-59 shootout between Oklahoma and Texas Tech in 2016? 12

• What was the game's result? Alabama won

• How many recorded ties are in the history of the Iron Bowl? 1

• Who defeated Florida State 59-20 to advance to the inaugural College Football Playoff National Championship in the 2014-2015 season? Clemson

• Who won the National Championship during the 2009-2010 season? Alabama

• What was the final score of Appalachian State's 2007 upset over Michigan? 34-32

• After winning the game, Alabama did what that season? Lost in the National Championship

• Which teams scored a combined 125 total points in a 2016 conference shootout? Texas Tech & Oklahoma

• Which team lost to Alabama in the 2015-2016 College Football Playoff Semifinals? Michigan State

• Where was Michigan ranked when they were upset by Appalachian State in the 2007 season opener? 5

• What conference did Delaware join when they transitioned to the FBS in 2025? C-USA

• Which team transitioned to the FBS level in the 2025 season? Delaware

• Which team lost to Clemson in the 2019-2020 College Football Playoff Semifinals? Ohio State

• What game was NOT a semifinal in the 2014-2015 inaugural season of the College Football Playoff? Fiesta

• What year did the SEC host its first conference championship game? 1992

• Which team upset Michigan in the Big House in 2007? Appalachian State

• Who won the National Championship during the 2006-2007 season? Florida

• Which year did Miami win its first national championship? None of the above

• Which team beat Michigan in the 2023-2024 College Football Playoff Semifinals? Alabama

• What was the exact amount of total yardage that both Oklahoma and Texas Tech ended with in an infamous 66-59 shootout in 2016? 854

• Which team played its first-ever home game against Bowling Green in 1920 and lost 7-0? Kent State

• What decade was the "Wishbone" formation invented in? 1960s

• Which team was NOT an original member of the ACC? Florida State

• What year was the Big 12 founded? 1994

• What year was the forward pass legalized in college football? 1906

• Which university is closely associated with the "Four Horsemen" in football? Notre Dame

• What year was the SEC officially established? 1932

• When college football first started, how many players were allowed on each side? 25

• Which team was NOT an original member of the Big 10 conference? Indiana

• Which formation is most closely associated with by triple option teams? Flexbone

• The Rose Bowl was first played in what year? 1902

• How many members were in the original SEC when it was established? 13

• What year was the Heisman Trophy first awarded? 1935

• Which teams did NOT have football banned following the 1905 season? Ohio

• Which formation was invented early in football's history? Single Wing

• Which team did NOT win a National Championship between 2000 and 2010? Florida State

• What year was scoring for field goals reduced to 3? 1909

• What was the original shape of the football used in early games? Rugby-style

• What rule change was introduced in 1906 regarding the length of games? Decreasing game length from 70 minutes to 60 minutes

• In what decade did helmets become mandatory in college football? 1930s

• Where was the first college football game played? Rutgers

• What is widely considered the first year to feature a college football game? 1869

• Which year did BYU have a Heisman Trophy winner? 1990

• Which team was the National Champion in 1994? Nebraska

• Which team won the national title game in 2004? USC

• The 1994 contest between Colorado and Michigan that saw the Buffaloes winning on a tipped Hail Mary is known as what game? Miracle at Michigan

• Which team was the National Champion in 1996? Florida

• Which team was once known as the "Owls"? Arizona State

• A 2016 contest between Virginia Tech and Tennessee set a new record for which of these below: Single-game attendance in a college football game

• Which of the following years featured the first college football game ever broadcast on television? 1939

• Which team did not have a Heisman Trophy winner during the 20th century? Kansas

• What major college football milestone was achieved in 1939? First college football game broadcast on television

• Which decade did facemasks become widely introduced in college football? 1950s

• Which position had 11-straight Heisman Trophy winners from 1973 to 1983? HB

• Which famous play call helped vault Nebraska over Oklahoma in a 2001 battle of the unbeatens? Black 41 Flash Reverse

• Kansas and Missouri played their last Border War rivalry as a Big 12 Conference game in which year? 2011

• Which team was the National Champion in 1989? Miami

• Which team did NOT have a Heisman Trophy winner from 1980-1985? Notre Dame

• Which team won more games in 2024 than the previous 3 seasons combined? Indiana

• Which team beat their in-state rival 119-0 in 1902? Michigan

• A 1984 Hail Mary led Boston College over which team? Miami

College Football Trivia & Geography

• How many FBS teams did the state of Alabama have during the 2024–2025 season? 6

• Which college football team does NOT play in Ohio? Ball State

• Which college football team plays farthest east? Florida State

• Which school is closest to the Kansas Jayhawks? Kansas State

• Which school's campus is closest to a state capital city? Texas

• Which state was home to both a Big Ten and C-USA team during the 2025–2026 season? Missouri

• Which team is closest to its state capital? Ohio State

• Where is the University of Georgia located? Athens

• How many miles is UCLA from the coast? 5

• How many FBS schools did the state of Alabama have during the 2022–2023 season? 5

• What's the elevation at Utah's stadium? 4,600 ft

• Which university is located farthest from the Mississippi River? Arkansas

• Which team plays its games in Chicago? None of the above

• What is the elevation at Wyoming's football stadium? 7,200 ft

• During the 2025–2026 season, which of these conferences had their teams spread across the most time zones? Big Ten

• What's the approximate distance between Oregon and Oregon State? 45 miles

• Which schools have had a shorter drive to their annual rivalry game when the game was played in Arlington, TX, from 2009–2024? Texas A&M

• Which team is in DeKalb? Northern Illinois

• Where do Oklahoma and Texas play their annual rivalry game? Dallas

• Michigan plays in which city? Ann Arbor

• Which state has the fewest FBS teams? Washington (and Mississippi, Arkansas, Indiana, Pennsylvania, Idaho - varies by question batch)

• What's the elevation of New Mexico's stadium? 5,100 ft

• Which city is New Mexico State in? Roswell

• Which Big Ten school was located farthest west during the 2023 season? Nebraska

• What's the approximate distance from the University of Missouri to the state capital? 30 miles

• Which direction is Iowa's campus from the state capital? East

• Which team is in a city that shares the same name with the University of Georgia's? Ohio

• What city did Arkansas and Texas A&M play their rivalry game in other than on the two teams' campuses from 2009 to 2024? Arlington

• Which direction is Houston's campus from the state capital? South

• Where do the Oregon Ducks play? Eugene

• Where is the University of Alabama's football stadium located? Tuscaloosa

• Which team plays in the city of Starkville? Mississippi State

• Which women's/men's team is in the city of Lincoln? Cornhuskers

• Which of these states only had 1 FBS team during the 2023–2024 season? Missouri

• Which team plays in the city of Muncie? Ball State

• How many teams did the state of California have in the FBS during the 2021–2022 season? 7

• Which FBS stadium is located at an elevation above 5,000 feet? Folsom Field

• Which team plays in Boulder? Colorado

• During the 2025–2026 season, which conference had teams in both California and New Jersey? Big Ten

• Approximately how far was the distance from College Station to Arlington, TX, when Texas A&M played Arkansas in 2016? 190 miles

• Where does Missouri State play in? Springfield

• Where does Delaware play? Newark

• Which university's football stadium sits on the banks of the Tennessee River? Tennessee

• What's the elevation at Colorado's stadium? 5,300 ft

• Which school is the farthest northwest? Stanford

• Which direction is Maryland's campus from the state capital? North

• Which team's stadium is less than 10 miles from the Mississippi River? Memphis

• Which school is located in Lubbock? Texas Tech

• Which of these schools are more than 300 miles away from its state capital? Washington State

• Which of these teams is not in the same state as the others? Tulane

• Which college football team plays some games at Elmore/Pickens Stadium? Texas Tech

• Which school is north of the state capital? Oklahoma State

• What is the elevation at Air Force's football stadium? 6,600 ft

• Which of these schools is located in the state capital? Florida State

• Which team plays in Morgantown? West Virginia

• What's the approximate distance from the University of Oklahoma to the state capital? 20 miles

• Which of these teams don't actually play on campus but more than 20 miles away? Miami

• Which school is in a city that starts with "M"? Wisconsin

• Which of these schools are located in Gainesville? Florida

• The Rainbow Warriors play on which island? Oahu

• Which university is the farthest north? Oregon State

• Which FBS stadium is located closest to the Pacific Ocean? Snapdragon Stadium

• Which university is located closest to the Mississippi River? LSU

• Where do the Fighting Irish play? South Bend

• Which college football team plays farthest west? Air Force

• Which rivalry schools are the closest in physical distance? USC/UCLA

• Which college is in the city with the smallest population? Oregon State (or Kansas State depending on the batch)

• Where is Oklahoma State located? Stillwater

• Which team is closest to the Atlantic Ocean? Miami

• Which school is NOT south of the state capital? Baylor

• Which school is located closest to the Pacific Ocean? UCLA

• Which city do the Kentucky Wildcats play in? Lexington

• What's the approximate distance from the University of Kansas to the state capital? 30 miles

• How many miles (approximately) would it take you to drive from Alabama's campus to Auburn's campus? 150 miles

• Which team is the farthest south? Arizona

• What's the approximate distance from Kansas State to the state capital? 60 miles

• Utah State is closer to which school? Boise State

• How far is Wyoming's football stadium (approximately) from the state capital? 50 miles

• Which Big 12 team was the farthest northeast during the 2020-2021 season? Mountaineers

• Which state did NOT have just one MAC team in the 2020-2021 season? Minnesota

• Which MAC team was the farthest from the Atlantic Ocean during the 2020-2021 season? Northern Illinois

• Which of these schools is located at the highest elevation above sea level? Wyoming

• How many teams were in Virginia in the 2023-2024 season? 5

• Which team is in a major metropolitan city? FIU

• Which state had the most MAC members in the 2020-2021 season? Ohio

• Where do the Hoosiers play? Bloomington

• Which city is Wyoming's football stadium in? Laramie

• What school is in Alabama? Jacksonville State

• Which state only had one Big 12 member during the 2024-2025 season? Oklahoma

• How many Big 12 teams were in the state of Texas during the 2010-2011 season? 5 (or 4 depending on the specific phrasing of the trick question)

• Which city is North Texas' football stadium in? Denton

• How many teams were in the state of Tennessee during the 2021-2022 season? 4

• Which city is ECU's football stadium in? Greenville

• How many Big 12 teams were east of the Mississippi during the 2025-2026 season? 6

• Which state did NOT have multiple MAC teams during the 2020-2021 season? Indiana

• Which team is NOT in a major metropolitan city? Oklahoma

• How many Big 12 teams were west of the Mississippi during the 2025-2026 season? 13

• Which stadium is in Virginia? SECU Stadium

• How many state lines does the Roadrunners football team have to cross to play the Bearkats? 0

• Which one of these stadiums are international? Aviva Stadium

• How many FBS schools were in the state of Indiana in 2000? 4

• How many state lines do the SDSU Aztecs cross when they play the New Mexico Lobos? 2

• Which of these teams are roughly 20-25 miles from the Duke Blue Devils? Wolfpack

• Which football team does NOT play their home games in the state of New York? Rockets

• Which stadium is closest toward the Pacific Ocean? Mackay Stadium

• How many state lines does the Air Force football team cross when they travel to War Memorial Stadium? 1

• How many FBS teams were in the state of Texas in 2023? 13

• Which of these cities did NOT host a College Football Playoff Quarterfinal game in 2024? Arlington

• Approximately how many miles would Stanford have to travel to play at Kenan Memorial Stadium? 2,500 miles

• Which of these cities hosted a College Football Playoff Semifinal game in 2024? Miami Gardens

• How many FBS schools were in the state of Michigan in 2010? 5

• Which state had 3 FBS schools in 2015? Colorado

• How many FBS schools were in the state of Louisiana in 2025? 5

• Which one of these schools are closest to Liberty in distance? Ball State

• Which of these stadiums are NOT in the state of Ohio? Joan C. Edwards Stadium

• How many state lines does the Miners football team have to cross to play the Green Wave? 1

Sports Mathematics

• If a kicker makes 5 field goals and 3 PATs, what are his total points? 18

• If a QB completes 4 of 20 passes, what's his completion percentage? 20%

• The offense starts at its own 40. A defensive pass interference penalty moves them 15 yards. Where's the ball? Opponent's 45-yard line

• If an offense commits DPI and Holding in the same play, which penalty would the opposing coach NOT accept? Holding

• If a punter averages 30 yards per punt, fill in the missing punt: 30, 30, 30, ___ 30

• If a QB completes 12 of 18 passes, what's his completion percentage? 67%

• A punt is kicked from the 9-yard line, travels 50 yards, and is returned 19 yards. What is the net? 31

• If a kicker makes 2 field goals and 5 PATs but misses 3 field goals, what are his total points? 11

• A punt is kicked from the 29-yard line, travels 48 yards, and is returned 17 yards. What is the net? 31

• A receiver averages 22.5 yards per reception and has 8 receptions. What are his total yards? 180

• A returner fields a kickoff from the 9-yard line and returns it 35 yards, but there's a block in the back penalty. Where's the line of scrimmage on the next play? 34

• If a punt from the offense's 8-yard line goes 47 yards and is returned 37 yards, where is the line of scrimmage on the following play? 18

• If a kicker makes 6 of 9 field goals, what's his field goal percentage? 66.7%

• A punt is kicked from the 6-yard line, travels 37 yards, and is returned 6 yards. What is the net? 31

• A receiver averages 9.2 yards per reception and has 5 receptions. What are his total yards? 46

• If a team starts on their own 12, commits a holding penalty on the first play which the defense accepts, then eventually kicks a field goal from the opponent's 7-yard line, what is their total drive yardage? 81

• If a punter averages 30 yards per punt, fill in the missing punt: 10, 20, 30, 40, ___ 50

• If a player averages 10 yards per pass on 10 attempts, how many yards has he thrown for? 100

• Which of these scores are impossible? All of these are possible

• If a team scores 6 touchdowns and 3 field goals, one 2-point conversion, records a safety, but misses 3 PATs, how many points did they end the game with? 51

• If a kicker makes 4 field goals and 4 PATs, what are his total points? 16

• If a punt from the offense's 49-yard line goes 37 yards and is returned 59 yards, where is the line of scrimmage on the following play? 27

• If an RB scores 5 total touchdowns and a 2-point conversion, how many points is he responsible for? 32

• If a punt from the offense's 29-yard line goes 41 yards and is returned 25 yards, where is the line of scrimmage on the following play? 45

• If a kicker makes 3 of 5 field goals, what's his field goal percentage? 60%

• A defense is holding offenses to 67.9 rushing yards, but their opponent rushes for 288.5 yards. How many yards is that over their average? 220.6

• If a player returns punts for 46, 26, 23, and -15 yards, what's his punt return average? 20

• If an offense commits DPI and Holding in the same play, which penalty would the opposing coach most likely accept? OPI

• A QB throws a 28-yard pass from his 47-yard line. The receiver catches it and has 19 YAC before being tackled. Where is the new line of scrimmage? 6

• Which of these penalties are for more yardage? Holding

• A team punts from its own 30-yard line. The ball travels 42 yards and is returned 8 yards. Where's the new line of scrimmage? Opponent 36

• If a QB completes 12 of 24 passes, what's his completion percentage? 50%

• A punt is kicked from the 13-yard line, travels 44 yards, and is returned 8 yards. What is the net? 36

• If a player returns punts for 25, 35, 16, and 14 yards, what's his punt return yard total? 90

• A team punts from its own 40-yard line. The ball travels 49 yards and is returned 12 yards. Where's the new line of scrimmage? Opponent's 23

• If the defense commits a PI on 3rd down at midfield, what is the next down if the penalty was accepted? First at their 35

• If a team starts on their own 15 and kicks a field goal from the opponent's 26, what is their total drive yardage? 59

• A receiver averages 7.5 yards per reception and has 8 receptions. What are his total yards? 60

• Which of these penalties are for more yardage? Defensive Pass Interference

• A receiver averages 16 yards per reception and has 8 receptions. What are his total yards? 128

• If a team starts on their own 25 and kicks a field goal from the opponent's 25, what is their total drive yardage? 50

• A defense is holding offenses to 88.5 rushing yards, but their opponent rushes for 318.9 yards. How many yards is that over their average? 230.4

• If a QB completes 6 of 18 passes, what's his completion percentage? 33%

• If a player records 2 safeties, a scoop and score, and a pick-6, how many points was he responsible for himself? 16

• If an offensive linemen accumulates 2 false starts, 2 holdings, and a chop block penalty in a game, how many penalty yards was he responsible for? 45

• If the defense commits a PI on 3rd down at midfield and the offense accepts the penalty, what is the next down? 1st

• If a punter averages 30 yards per punt, fill in the missing punt: 45, 35, __ 10

• A receiver averages 5.5 yards per reception and has 6 receptions. What are his total yards? 33

• If a HB scores 3 total touchdowns and a 2-point conversion, how many points is he responsible for? 20

• A punt is kicked from the 17-yard line, travels 52 yards, and the ball is returned 12 yards. What is the net? 40

• If a player returns punts for 42, 23, 16, 10, and -11 yards, what's his punt return average? 16

• How many 2-point conversions would it take to equal the amount of points from 2 touchdowns before the PATs? 6

• If a player returns punts for 15, 25, 23, and 7 yards, what's his punt return yard total? 70

• If a team starts on their own 17 and kicks a field goal from the opponent's 34, what is their total drive yardage? 49

• If a punt from the offense's 16-yard line goes 47 yards and is returned 23 yards, where is the line of scrimmage on the following play? 40

• If a player records 2 safeties and a pick-6, how many points was he responsible for himself? 10

• If a HB scores 4 total touchdowns and a 2-point conversion, how many points is he responsible for? 26

• A receiver averages 10.1 yards per reception and has 10 receptions. What are his total yards? 101

• If a player returns punts for 14, 33, 28, and -7 yards, what's his punt return yard total? 68

• If a HB scores 2 total touchdowns and a 2-point conversion, how many points is he responsible for? 14

• A defense is holding offenses to 112.5 rushing yards, but their opponent rushes for 268.2 yards. How many yards is that over their average? 155.7

• If a team starts on their own 10 and kicks a field goal from the opponent's 40, what is their total drive yardage? 50

• If a kicker makes 2 field goals and 8 PATs but misses 2 PATs, what are his total points? 14

• A QB throws a 14-yard pass from his 8 yard line. The receiver catches it and has 58 YAC before he's tackled. Where is the new line of scrimmage? 20

• If a player returns punts for 44, 28, 23, and -12 yards, what's his punt return yard total? 83

• A QB throws a 28 yard pass from his 7 yard line. The receiver catches it and has 29 YAC before he's tackled. Where is the new line of scrimmage? 36

• A QB throws a 37 yard pass from his 31 yard line. The receiver catches it and has 22 YAC before he's tackled. Where is the new line of scrimmage? 10

• If a quarterback completes passes of 11, 22, 33, and 44 on a drive, but also completes a pass for a loss of 12 yards, how many yards does he end up with for that sequence? 98

• What is an octopus in football? If a player scores a 6-point touchdown and subsequent 2 point conversion

• A QB throws a 22 yard pass from his 19 yard line. The receiver catches it and has 38 YAC before he's tackled. Where is the new line of scrimmage? 21

• If a kicker makes 4 field goals and 9 PATs, what are his total points? 21

• A returner fields a kickoff from the 14 yard line and returns it 37 yards, but there's a False Start on the first play. Where's the line of scrimmage on the next play? 46

• If a quarterback completes passes of 16, 25, and 44 on a drive, how many passing yards does he end the drive with? 85

• If a team scores 3 touchdowns and 2 field goals, records a safety, but misses 2 PATs, how many points do they end the game with? 27

• If a QB completes 15 of 20 passes, what's his completion percentage? 75%

• How many 2 point conversions would it take to equal the amount of points from 6 touchdowns with PATs? 21

• A defense is holding offenses to 130 rushing yards, but their opponent rushes for 260 yards. How many yards is that over their average? 130

• A punt is kicked from the 10 yard line, travels 47 yards, and the ball is returned 18 yards. What is the net? 29

• If an offense at the opponent's 35-yard line commits holding, where is the ball placed? 45-yard line

• A returner fields a kickoff from the 12 yard line and returns it 22 yards. Then on the first play, there's a False Start. Where's the line of scrimmage on the next play? 27

• If my receiver needed 1,200 more receiving yards to break a school record, and he records 88, 66, and 44 yards in his first 3 games, how many yards are left? 1002

• (Year of Oklahoma State's lone Heisman Trophy winner) − (Year of Syracuse's lone Heisman Trophy winner) 27

• If a team's all-time record against my team is 30-90, what's their winning percentage against my team? 25%

• If my receiver needed 1,200 more yards to break a school record and he records 90 yards a game in the regular season, how many postseason games would he need to play to break the record? 2

• If a team's all-time record against my team is 100-50, what's their winning percentage against my team? 67%

• If my team scores 33, 44, and 55 points and gives up 22, 33, and 44 points during that span, what's my team's point differential? +33

• If I have a receiver who scored 16 touchdowns this season, how many points was he solely responsible for? 96

• If my receiver needed 1,200 more yards to break a school record and he records 80 yards a game in the regular season, how many postseason games would he need to play to break the record? 3

• If I have a Quarterback who can throw it 48 yards at most, which yard line would he hit if he tried throwing with maximum power from his own 12-yard line? Opponent's 40

• (Amount of 2010s Alabama Heisman Trophy winners) + (Amount of 1990s Texas Heisman Trophy winners) = 2

• If I have a play call that averaged 6 yards over a game, and I called it 4 times, how many yards did I get from it total? 24

• If a team's all-time record against my team is 15-60, what's their winning percentage against my team? 20%

• If I have a receiver who scored 16 touchdowns this season and 12 touchdowns last season, how many points was he solely responsible for over that span? 168

• If my team scores 22, 44, and 66 points and gives up 55, 11, and 44 points during that span, what's my team's point differential? +22

• If my team scores 7, 21, and 31 points and gives up 3, 7, and 17 points during that span, what's my team's point differential? +32

• If my receiver needed 1,200 more yards to break a school record and he records 100 yards a game in the regular season, how many postseason games would he need to play to break the record? 0

• If a team's all-time record against my team is 100-25, what's their winning percentage against my team? 80%

• If I have a play call that averaged 5 yards over a game, and I called it 9 times, how many yards did I get from it total? 45

• If I have a receiver who scored 9 touchdowns this season, how many points was he solely responsible for? 54

• (Ineligible Receiver Downfield yardage) x 5 None of the above

• (Amount of deep defenders in Cover 4) x (Amount of deep defenders in Cover 6) = 12

• (Amount of 1990s Florida State National Championships) x (Amount of 1990s Nebraska National Championships) - (Amount of 1990s Tennessee National Championships) 3

• (Amount of 1990s Washington National Championships) x (Amount of 1980s Miami National Championships) + (Amount of 2010s Auburn National Championships) 4

• How many combined penalty yards are 3 chop blocks, 2 roughing the passers, 2 illegal shifts, and 3 encroachments? 100

• How many combined penalty yards are 2 chop blocks, 2 roughing the passers, 1 illegal shift, and 8 encroachments? 105

• If my running back averaged 12 yards per catch with 48 total yards, how many catches did he have? 4

• How many combined penalty yards are 2 chop blocks, 1 roughing the passer, 1 illegal shift, and 1 encroachment? 55

• How many combined penalty yards are 3 false starts, 1 holding penalty, and 2 clipping penalties? 55

• If my running back averaged 9 yards per catch with 63 total yards, how many catches did he have? 7

• (Amount of 2010s Alabama National Championships) x (Amount of 1990s Alabama National Championships) = 4

• If my team is down 44-35 and I score a touchdown, but on the PAT the defense blocks it, tries to return it, and gets tackled in the end zone on the same side of the PAT, what is the new score? 44-42

• If my running back averaged 8 yards per catch with 48 total yards, how many catches did he have? 6

• How many combined penalty yards are 2 false starts, 2 holding penalties, and 1 clipping penalty? 45

• If I complete a 2nd-down 48-yard pass on my team's 22-yard line but commit an illegal forward pass penalty, what is the next down and distance? 3rd down, 17-yard line

• If a true sophomore rushes for 60 yards a game in the previous season and 80 yards a game in the current season, what is his career average for rushing yards per game? 70

• How many combined penalty yards are 2 chop blocks, 3 roughing the passers, 2 illegal shifts, and 1 encroachment? 90

• (Amount of 1990s Florida National Championships) x (Amount of 2010s Georgia National Championships) - (Amount of 2010s Tennessee National Championships) = 0

• (Amount of 1980s Oklahoma National Championships) + (Amount of 1980s Clemson National Championships) - (Amount of 1990s Michigan National Championships) 1

• If a true junior rushes for 44 yards a game as a freshman, 67 as a sophomore, and 93 yards a junior, what is his career average for rushing yards per game? 68

• (Year of LSU National Championship in 2010s) - (Year of Ohio State National Championship in 2010s) = 5

• If my running back averaged 5 yards per catch with 80 total yards, how many catches did he have? 16

• If a true junior rushes for 55 yards a game as a freshman, 75 as a sophomore, and 80 yards a junior, what is his career average for rushing yards per game? 70

General Mathematics & Finance

• Which measure of central tendency is most affected by extreme values? Mean

• If the correlation coefficient r = 0, this means: No linear relationship between variables

• The standard deviation of a sample is calculated by: Square root of the variance

• What does a boxplot not display? Mean

• What is the shape of a sampling distribution of the sample mean if the population is normal? Normal

• What does a residual represent in regression analysis? Actual minus predicted value

• A Type II error is failing to reject a false what? Null hypothesis

• In a binomial distribution, the parameter p represents: Probability of success

• In a standard normal distribution, what is the z-score of the mean? 0

• What is the expected value of a fair six-sided die roll? 3.5

• What does a p-value represent in hypothesis testing? The probability of observing the data if the null hypothesis is true

• The interquartile range (IQR) measures: The average deviation from the mean

• The variance of a dataset is: The average squared deviation from the mean

• A Type I error occurs when: We reject a true null hypothesis

• The purpose of randomization in an experiment is to minimize what? Bias

• The correlation coefficient r measures: The strength and direction of a linear relationship

• What is the critical z-value for a 95% confidence interval? 1.96

• In a normal distribution, approximately what percent of data falls within one standard deviation of the mean? 68%

• If two events A and B are independent, then: P(A and B) = P(A) × P(B)

• Which of the following is not a measure of spread? Mode

• In a binomial distribution, the parameter n represents: Number of trials

• Which of the following is equivalent to (x – 4)²? x² – 8x + 16

• Solve: x + 8 = 15 7

• What is 2x – 3x + 5 equal to? -x + 5

• Solve: 4x – 7 = 9 4

• Simplify: 3(x + 4) 3x + 12

• What is the solution to: x – 4 = –7? -3

• Solve: 5x = 20 4

• Which of the following is the solution set for: x² = 16? {-4, 4}

• Solve: 3(x – 2) = 9 5

• What is the value of x in the equation: x + 5 = 12? 7

• Evaluate: 2x² when x = 3 18

• Simplify: 5x + 2x 7x

• What is the slope of the line y = 2x + 5? 2

• Simplify: (2x)(3x) 6x²

• What is the solution to: –2x + 4 = 10? -3

• What does the expression 2(x + 3) – x simplify to? x + 6

• Which of these represents the equation of a horizontal line? y = 5

• If f(x) = 2x – 1, what is f(4)? 7

• Factor: x² – 9 (x – 3)(x + 3)

• What is 1¹ equivalent to? 1

• Simplify: (x + 2)(x + 5) x² + 7x + 10

• What is the term for the current value of a future amount of money? Present value

• Which budgeting method abbreviation focuses on costs and efficiency? ZBB

• What is the term for inflation-adjusted return? Real return

• What is the accounting equation? Assets = Liabilities + Equity

• Which bond feature allows early repayment by the issuer? Call option

• What type of interest is earned on both the principal and previously earned interest? Compound interest

• Which form of debt has the highest risk and typically the highest return? Subordinated debt

• What is a common measure of stock volatility? Beta

• What type of market involves the issuance of new securities? Primary market

• What is the term for spreading investment risk by holding various assets? Diversification

• What is the process of estimating future cash flows and discounting them to present value? Capital budgeting

• What does "liquidity" refer to in finance? Cash availability

• What does “working capital” measure? Current assets minus current liabilities

• Which financial ratio measures liquidity? Current ratio

• What type of asset is land considered? Fixed asset

• What does the P/E ratio measure? Price versus earnings

• What does the "D" in EBITDA stand for? Depreciation

• What kind of risk is reduced through diversification? Unsystematic risk

• What does APR stand for? Annual Percentage Rate

• What type of bond can be exchanged for a set number of shares? Convertible bond

• What is the formula to calculate simple interest? P x R x T

• What is the main benefit of pre-tax retirement contributions? Lower taxable income now

• What is a sinking fund used for? Saving for predictable, large expenses

• How would you describe a credit score of 800? Excellent

• What is the main advantage of dollar-cost averaging in investing? Reduces impact of market volatility over time

• Which of these is an example of a regressive tax? Sales tax

• Which expense is most likely to be a fixed expense? Rent

• What is the main difference between a secured and unsecured loan? Secured loans require collateral

• What does the DTI ratio measure? The percentage of income that goes toward debt payments

• What is escrow used for in real estate? Calculating mortgage interest

• What is a common disadvantage of adjustable-rate mortgages (ARMs)? The interest rate may increase over time

• What is your net income? Income after taxes and deductions

• What is compound interest? Interest on the principal and previously earned interest

• What does "amortization" refer to in loans? Gradual repayment of a loan over time

• What is an overdraft? Spending more than you have in your account

• Which type of retirement plan is taxed after contributions are made, but allows tax-free withdrawals later? Annuity plan

• Why is using leverage in investing risky? It involves borrowing, which can magnify potential losses

• What is a W-4 form used for? To tell an employer how much tax to withhold

• What is depreciation? A decrease in an asset's value over time

• What is a credit score used for? Determining eligibility for loans and interest rates

• What is the main difference between a credit report and a credit score? A report includes detailed credit history; a score is a number based on it

• What is the term for the additional satisfaction gained from consuming one more unit of a good? Marginal utility

• What curve shows all combinations of two goods that give a consumer equal satisfaction? Indifference curve

• Which term refers to a situation where quantity demanded equals quantity supplied? Equilibrium

• What happens when marginal cost is below average total cost? ATC falls

• What shape is a perfectly inelastic demand curve? Vertical

• What market structure has many firms selling differentiated products? Monopolistic competition

• What is the price at which a firm breaks even in the long run? Average total cost

• What is the graphical area above supply and below price called? Producer surplus

• What is the term for when resources are allocated in a way that maximizes total surplus? Efficiency

• Which cost includes both explicit and implicit costs? Economic cost

• What occurs when marginal benefit equals marginal cost? Allocative efficiency

• What is the vertical summation of individual marginal cost curves in a market? Market supply

• What is the cross-price elasticity of demand for perfect substitutes? Positive

• Which of these describes a public good? Non-excludable and non-rival

• What is the term for an economy's ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than another producer? Absolute advantage

• What is the name for a cost that does not change with output level? Fixed cost

• What type of market structure is characterized by a single seller? Monopoly

• Which elasticity measures responsiveness of quantity demanded to income changes? Income elasticity

• Which axis typically represents quantity in a supply and demand graph? Horizontal

• Which of these costs are irrelevant to current decisions because it cannot be recovered? Sunk cost

Sciences (Biology, Health, Entomology, Astronomy, Meteorology & Geology)

• Insects have how many pairs of legs? 3

• Which organ acts as their "eardrums" of an insect? Tympanal organ

• Which insect group builds complex social colonies? Termites

• What term describes the hard outer covering of an insect? Exoskeleton

• What kind of eyes do most adult insects have? Compound

• What term describes cold-blooded animals like insects? Ectothermic

• Which is the largest order of insects? Coleoptera

• What is the term for the immature stage of insects that undergo incomplete metamorphosis? Nymph

• Which of these terms are NOT associated with an insect's antenna? Coxa

• What order do butterflies belong to? Lepidoptera

• Which of the following insects undergo complete metamorphosis? Dragonflies

• Which stage happens between molts during an insect's development? Instar

• Which insects do NOT have nymphs that live in water? Houseflies

• What part of an insect is used primarily for sensing smells? Antennae

• What part of an insect’s mouth is used for biting and chewing? Mandible

• Which insects produce silk from modified salivary glands? Moths

• What is the name of the thin tube some insects use for laying eggs? Ovipositor

• What is the name of the hardened front wings of beetles? Elytra

• Which insect order includes dragonflies and damselflies? Odonata

• What part of the insect body is directly behind the head? Thorax

• If a cell suddenly lost all of its ribosomes, which of these processes below would immediately be disrupted first? Protein synthesis

• Why do red blood cells lack nuclei? To allow more hemoglobin storage

• Two cells have identical DNA but very different shapes and functions. The difference is primarily due to: Differential gene expression

• In a neuron, if voltage-gated potassium channels opened earlier than normal, what would happen? The action potential would shorten

• In the process of photosynthesis, if a plant were deprived of water, which part of the process would be affected first? Electron replacement in photosystem II

• Why are mitochondria and chloroplasts similar in structure? Both evolved from engulfed prokaryotes

• Which of these is NOT true about the relationship between enzymes and temperature? Denaturation can be reversed completely in most enzymes

• Match the complementary strand 3′-TCAGG-5′ to the correct DNA strand sequence below. 5′-AGTCC-3′

• If a gene coding for a repressor protein were deleted, the gene it would regulates would likely be: Permanently active

• When a hormone binds to a receptor on a cell membrane, the next step often involves: Activation of a second messenger

• If ATP synthase in chloroplasts were blocked, what would happen first? Glucose formation slows

• Which organelle is responsible for energy production in eukaryotic cells? Mitochondrion

• If a certain enzyme is heated slightly above its optimal temperature, the reaction rate briefly rises and then drops sharply. This is because: The enzyme is denatured

• If the pH of the cytoplasm dropped sharply, which of the cellular processes below would most likely slow first? Glycolysis

• A plant cell will lose water if it's placed in which of these below: Hypertronic solution

• A cell with a high number of mitochondria is most likely specialized for which of the following: Water transport

• Take a scenario where a mutation prevents tRNA molecules from attaching amino acids. Which of the following events would follow? Translation would stop

• A cell membrane rich in unsaturated fatty acids remains flexible in the cold because: Tails prevent tight packing

• Why are chloroplasts and mitochondria similar in structure? None of the above

• A mutation disables a cell's lysosomes. Over time, the most visible effect would be which of the following: Accumulation of waste material

• Which of these is NOT true about oxidative phosphorylation? The proton gradient is generated in the cytoplasm

• Which mineral is most important for bone health? Calcium

• What does the C in RICE stand for in injury treatment? Compress

• Which hormone is primarily associated with stress? Cortisol

• What is the term for the number of calories your body needs at rest? Basal metabolic rate

• Which sleep stage is most important for restoration? REM sleep

• Which nutrient is the body's main source of energy? Carbohydrate

• Which nutrient is primarily found in fruits and vegetables? Fiber

• Which macronutrient helps build and repair body tissue? Protein

• Which part of the brain plays a key role in regulating circadian rhythm? Hypothalamus

• What term describes the ability of the heart and lungs to supply oxygen during activity? Lung Capacity

• Which type of fat should be limited in a healthy diet? Saturated

• What does BMI stand for? Body Mass Index

• Which type of fat is considered the healthiest? Monosaturated fat

• Which term refers to the body's internal balance? Homeostasis

• Which vitamin is primarily produced by the skin in sunlight? D

• Which nutrient is essential for muscle contraction Calcium

• Which sleep disorder involves interrupted breathing? Apnea

• What is the healthy, systolic range for adult blood pressure? From 110-119

• Which of these terms refers to short, high-intensity, intervals of exercise? Anaerobic

• Which is a sign of good cardiovascular fitness? Low resting heart rate

• Which organ regulates blood sugar levels? Pancreas

• Which type of fiber can help lower cholesterol? Soluble fiber

• Which of the following is an antioxidant vitamin? Vitamin C

• Which vitamin is essential for vision and immune function? Vitamin A

• Which nutrient provides the most energy per gram? Fats

• Which food is high in omega-3 fatty acids? Salmon

• Which type of fat is considered heart-healthy? Unsaturated fat

• Complete proteins contain: All nine essential amino acids

• Which organ stores glucose in the form of glycogen? Liver

• Which of the following foods is rich in probiotics? Yogurt

• Which vitamin is fat-soluble? Vitamin E

• Which of the following foods is high in monounsaturated fat? Olive oil

• Which vitamin can be synthesized in the skin through sunlight? Vitamin D

• Which type of carbohydrate is digested slowly and helps with satiety? Complex carbohydrate

• Which enzyme breaks down starches into sugars? Amylase

• Which nutrient helps maintain fluid balance and nerve function? Potassium

• Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin? Vitamin B12

• Which type of fat is linked to increased LDL cholesterol? Saturated fat

• Which mineral is important for strong bones and teeth? Calcium

• Which vitamin helps with calcium absorption and bone health? Vitamin D

• Which type of carbohydrate is indigestible but important for gut health? Fiber

• Which animal’s fingerprints are nearly identical to humans’? Koala

• What do camels store in their humps? Fat

• Which insect has the longest migration route? Dragonfly

• A species of which animal is considered biologically immortal due to their ability to "restart" their life cycle? Jellyfish

• What animal can hold its breath the longest underwater? Sea turtle

• Which of these is NOT a mammal? Penguin

• Which animal can regenerate limbs and organs? All of the above

• Which mammal lays eggs? Platypus

• Which of the following animals is capable of tool use? All of the above

• What color is a polar bear’s skin under its fur? Black

• Which animal has the longest migration of any known species? Arctic tern

• Which reptile can reproduce via parthenogenesis? Komodo dragon

• Which animal produces the loudest sound of any creature on Earth? Blue whale

• Which species is known for its matriarchal social structure? Elephants

• What marine animal has 8 arms? Octopus

• What is the largest species of shark? Whale shark

• Which bird has the longest wingspan? Albatross

• Which bird can mimic human speech? All of the above

• Which animal has the longest gestation period? Elephant

• A chameleon changes its color based on what? Mood

• What is a baby kangaroo called? Joey

• What property of a star is most directly related to its color? Surface temperature

• Which one of these terms is a massive black hole with high energy output? Quasar

• Which of these is a term for the shift toward longer wavelengths as objects move farther away? Redshift

• What is dark matter? Unseen matter inferred from gravity

• What is a black hole? A region where gravity is so strong that not even light can escape

• What is the name of the boundary around a black hole? Event horizon

• Which of these is a rapidly rotating neutron star? Pulsar

• What is parallax used for in astronomy? Determining distances to nearby stars

• What is the term for a system of stars, gas, and dust held together by gravity? Galaxy

• Which of these is a dense, spherical collection of old stars? Globular cluster

• Which type of star ends its life in a supernova? Stars that are high in mass

• What is an exoplanet? A planet outside our solar system

• What is the term for the study of the universe’s origin, structure, and evolution? Cosmology

• What is a light-year a measure of? Distance

• What is the universe doing over time? Expanding

• What is the visible part of the electromagnetic spectrum? Visible light

• Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the shortest wavelength? Gamma rays

• What is the most abundant element in the universe? Hydrogen

• What type of electromagnetic wave has the longest wavelength? Radio waves

• Which planet is known for having the Great Red Spot? Jupiter

• Which is the largest planet in our solar system? Jupiter

• Which planet is closest to the sun? Mercury

• What's the main cause of tides on Earth? Moon's gravity

• Which planet has the most moons? Saturn

• What is the surface of the sun called? Photosphere

• What force keeps planets in orbit around the sun? Gravity

• What is the Sun primarily made of? Hydrogen and helium

• Which planet is known as the Red Planet? Mars

• Which of these refers to a chunk of rock or metal that hits the surface of the Earth? Meteorite

• Which planet is known for its rings? Saturn

• Which planet has the hottest surface temperature? Venus

• What are asteroids mostly made of? Rock and metal

• Which planet has no moons? Mercury

• What do we call a star that suddenly increases in brightness? Supernova

• Which planet is farthest from the Sun? Neptune

• Which planet has the longest day? Venus

• What type of galaxy is the Milky Way? Spiral

• What is the name of the galaxy closest to the Milky Way? Andromeda

• What is the center of our solar system? Sun

• What are cirrus clouds made of? Ice crystals

• What is rain, snow, or hail called? Precipitation

• What color are most storm clouds? Dark gray or black

• What is a big storm that forms over warm ocean water? Hurricane

• Which direction does weather usually move in the U.S.? West to East

• What is climate? Long-term weather patterns

• What happens when warm and cold air meet? A front forms

• What causes wind? Air pressure differences

• What do clouds form from? Water vapor

• What does a barometer measure? Air pressure

• Which cloud brings rain or snow? Stratus

• What forms when water vapor cools and turns into water droplets? Condensation

• What happens to warm air? Rises

• What is the most common gas in the atmosphere? Nitrogen

• Which front moves faster? Cold front

• What is the purpose of a weather balloon? To measure weather high in the sky

• What does the Sun do to water to start the water cycle? Evaporates it

• Which of these is a type of precipitation? Sleet

• Which season usually has the most thunderstorms in the United States? Summer

• Which weather type might come from a cold front? Thunderstorm

• Which boundary often forms mountain ranges? Convergent

• Which type of rock is formed from cooled magma or lava? Igneous

• What type of boundary forms when two tectonic plates collide? Convergent boundary

• Which term describes the process of heat and pressure changing one rock type into another? Metamorphism

• What do we call the place on Earth’s surface directly above the earthquake focus? Epicenter

• Which of the following is a mineral? Quartz

• Which layer of Earth is liquid? Outer core

• What kind of rock forms from particles compacted and cemented together? Sedimentary

• What is the outermost layer of the Earth called? Crust

• What kind of rock is marble? Metamorphic

• What is the scale used to measure earthquake magnitude? None of the above

• Which type of volcano has gentle slopes and runny lava flows? Shield volcano

• Which rock type is obsidian? Igneous

• Which process turns sediment into sedimentary rock? Lithification

• Which layer of Earth makes up most of its volume? Mantle

• What process breaks down rocks into smaller pieces? Erosion

• What causes convection currents in the mantle? Differences in density and heat

• Which is NOT a common agent of erosion? Heat

• What type of rock often contains fossils? Sedimentary

• What type of plate boundary causes sea-floor spreading? Divergent

• What is the name of the supercontinent that existed millions of years ago? Pangaea

Media, Arts & Communications

• What is the term for the metal folding doors on the sides of a light? Barn doors

• What is the main purpose of an establishing shot? Introduce setting

• Which editing technique joins two similar images together? Match cut

• What would a car horn sound effect be an example of during a scene? Diegetic sound

• Which device is used to block light on the set of a movie? Flag

• Which editing technique shows actions happening simultaneously, as in at the same time within the movie's timeline? Crosscutting

• What is the term for a dot that appears in the corner of a movie projection to tell the projectionist to soon change the film reel? Change-Over Cue

• What is the term for the narrative device that hints at future events? Foreshadowing

• What's the term for the lens opening that controls the amount of light passing through? Aperture

• What's the term for a brief appearance by a person, oftentimes a celebrity, in a scene of a film? Cameo

• Which is the first step in editing? Assembly

• What is the term for a biographical film about a real-life subject? Biopic

• What does mise-en-scène include? Visual composition

• What do you call an abrupt transition between two shots? Fade

• What shot might result from putting a camera on a jib? Boom shot

• Which of these terms refers to an experimental or abstract work? Avant-garde

• What is the term for the arrangement of visual elements in a scene? Composition

• Which term refers to a sequence where the camera stops, an object is placed in the frame, and the camera restarts to show an object appearing from nowhere? Arret

• What is the term for lighting that minimizes shadows? High-key

• Which narrative structure begins in the middle of the action? In medias res

• What is a handheld object used by actors? Prop

• What is the traditional term for the left side of the stage from the performer's point of view? Stage left

• What are house lights? Audience area lights

• What does "projection" refer to in acting? Vocal clarity and volume

• What does "ensemble" mean in theater? Group performance

• What’s the final rehearsal with all technical elements called? Dress rehearsal

• What is "blocking"? Movement of actors on stage

• What is the name for a musical prelude that plays after the intermission and before the second act? Entr'acte

• What is a monologue? One character speaking alone

• What’s the term for pausing intentionally for effect? Beat

• What is the area of the stage closest to the audience? Downstage

• Which stage extends into the audience? Thrust

• What are sides? Script excerpts used in auditions

• What is the area backstage where actors wait called? Wings

• What is the break in between two acts called? Intermission

• What is the name for the written music within a musical? Score

• What is the term for removing a show’s set after final performance? Strike

• What is the term for someone who writes a play? Playwright

• Which of these vocal parts are highest? Soprano

• What is a "rake" in theater? Type of stage

• What is a blackout? Lights onstage go completely dark

• Problem recognition is which step in the consumer decision-making process? First

• Which channel member sells products directly to consumers? Retailer

• What does the T in SWOT stand for? Threats

• Which kind of advertising focuses on building long-term brand image? Institutional

• Diversification is what? A growth strategy to introduce new products into new markets

• Which metric shows the total value a customer brings over their relationship with a company? Customer lifetime value

• What does the O in SWOT stand for? Opportunities

• What does PPC stand for in marketing terms? Pay Per Click

• What does the W in SWOT stand for? Weaknesses

• Which pricing strategy involves setting a high price initially? Dynamic placement

• What is the best definition for Laggards? The final group on the adoption curve for products

• Which distribution strategy uses as many outlets as possible? Intensive distrobution

• Which product classification requires customer comparison before purchase? Shopping goods

• What term is used for unauthorized use of a brand or logo? Infringement

• Which of these terms is NOT referring to the branding strategy that uses one name for all products? Synergized branding

• What does the abbreviation USP stand for in marketing terms? Unique Selling Proposition

• Which abbreviation is associated with the share of a customer's total spending in a category? SOW

• What does CLV stand for? Customer Lifetime Value

• Which pricing method is based on adding a fixed markup to cost? Cost-plus pricing

• Which pricing tactic sets prices just below a whole number? Charm pricing

• What term refers to a consumer’s perception of a brand compared to competitors? Market position

• Which type of speech is often given with little or no preparation? Impromptu speech

• Which of these things would be an anecdote? Short funny story about my childhood

• A thesis statement in a speech: Clearly expresses the main idea or argument

• Which of these are a discussion format where a handful of experts give short speeches? Symposium

• What is the definition of a sender? Person who transmits a message

• Which of these things would be noise in a speech? Microphone cutting out

• What is an example of ethos in a speech? Citing credible sources and showing expertise

• Which of these would indicate feeling with someone by understanding their emotions and experiences, often drawing from things that have happened in our past? Empathy

• Which of these define an analogy? A comparison between two things

• Which of these define an internal dialogue with oneself? Intrapersonal communication

• Which of these refer to someone not trying to attract attention to themselves? Self-effacing

• Which of these would be a quality that evokes sympathy or pity? Pathos

• Which of these types of questions are asked in order to elicit an effect or make a statement? Rhetorical

• Which of these words define overly extravagant or ostentatious language that's used to try and impress our listener? Grandiloquent

• Which of these would we show if we cannot directly relate with someone's situation but still feel for their state of being? Sympathy

• Which of these would include interaction between two people? Interpersonal communication

• Which of these types of speech focus to change or reinforce the attitudes or beliefs of its receivers? Persuasive speech

• Which type of speech delivery uses a written speech that is read word-for-word? Manuscript

• Which type of delivery is practiced and planned but spoken in a conversational style? Extemporaneous

• Which of these define an expert or well-known figure endorsing a message or product? Testimonial

• Pathos in public speaking refers to: Appealing to emotion

• What's a name for a short snippet of an interview you might include in your sports story? Bite

• Which commentator gives background and context during the broadcast in between the action? Color

• What does VOSOT stand for? Voiceover Sound on Tape

• What's one of the many terms we use when a sports reporter is giving a live update at the scene of an event? Live hit

• What's the name of a short video that sports reporters make to cover a topic or event? Package

• Which of these is a transition between shots where the screen abruptly switches from one shot to another? Cut

• What's the correct spelling of the first sentence of a written story? Both of these are correct

• What's the term when we show a video update of another game during our game's broadcast? Cut-in

• What's the term for a story read to the audience by the sports anchor with no sound or video overlay? Reader

• Which of these terms is a brief clip that plays to tease what's coming up after a commercial? Bump

• If we do a pre-recorded story over a football team's practice, and you can hear the team practicing in the background at parts during the story, that's called: Nat sound

• What's the name of the small graphic logo in the corner of the screen? Bug

• What is the term for the earpiece on-air talent uses while they're live? IFB

• What's the name of the shot that we might want to cut to right after a player scores a touchdown? Hero

• What's the part of the script called that the reporter will say, often live, after their story has played on air? Tag

• Which person is responsible for physically changing which shot to cut to during a broadcast at the director's orders? Technical Director

• Sports reporters should avoid frequently using these types of questions, which elicit yes or no answers: Closed

• If you see footage of a football team coming into the stadium as we talk about them on air, that's called: B-Roll

• What's the name of the person who can help sports play-by-play commentators track real-time events like who made the tackle or who caught the ball? Spotter

• What's the name of a story that we can bring in or out of a broadcast to make time? Floater

• What's one of the first things we must do when we're about to film sports footage with a camera? White balance

• Choose the sentence with the correctly used pronoun: We all have to watch film this week

• Which of these sentences has a direct object? I handed the ball to the official

• Identify the correctly punctuated sentence: This year's team is stronger than last year's

• Which sentence is grammatically correct? The team has won the championship

• Identify the grammatically correct sentence: The offense made too many mistakes in yesterday's game

• Choose the sentence with the correctly used pronoun: Each offensive player must play at his best

• Which sentence is in passive voice? The ball was thrown by the quarterback

• Identify the correctly punctuated sentence: The coach said, "We need to improve our defense."

• Identify the correctly punctuated sentence: The defensive coordinator's play calls shut down the offense's aerial attack

• Identify the grammatically correct sentence: The football team lost its last game

• Which word is a contraction? They're

• Identify the correctly punctuated sentence: Our defense struggles to stop this offense's run game.

• Which word indicates possession? Your

• Which sentence is correct? He says the stadium's capacity is 54,000

• Which word could be used to indicate physical location? There

• Choose the sentence with the correctly used pronoun: Every player must bring his helmet

• Choose the sentence with the correctly used pronoun: Each player must play his best

• Which word indicates possession? Their

• Which sentence is in passive voice? The player was hit by his own teammate

• Identify the conjugated verb: "I know how to run farther than he can." I Know

• Which sentence uses the correct preposition: The fans cheered on the sidelines

• A triadic color scheme uses: Three colors spaced evenly on the color wheel

• Which type of perspective uses a single vanishing point? One point

• What is a monochromatic color scheme? One color with tints and shades

• What does the term "opaque" mean in painting? Non-transparent

• A drawing made with only values of black, white, and gray is called what? Grayscale

• What term describes color intensity or purity? Chroma

• What is an example of a dry drawing medium? Graphite

• What term describes a painting technique that uses thick layers of paint? Impasto

• What surface is best for charcoal drawing? Textured paper

• What does the vanishing point help depict? Depth

• What does "composition" refer to in art? Arrangement of elements in a piece of work

• Which surface is most commonly used for oil painting? Canvas

• What is the term for a repeated decorative design? Motif

• What does "sfumato" refer to in painting? Blurred edges

• What are the three primary colors? Red, yellow, blue

• What does the R in RGB stand for? Red

• Which term refers to the brightness or dullness of a color? Saturation

• What is an armature in sculpture? Internal support structure

• What do you get when you mix a primary color and a secondary color? Tertiary color

• Which of these is a neutral color? None of the above

• What term refers to the lightness or darkness of a color? Value

• What does attribution do in journalism? Identifies where information comes from

• What is an embargoed story? A story that can't be published until a set time

• Which of these terms describes news or knowledge only understood by a small collection of people or with specific interest? Context

• What does "off the record" mean? The information should not be published

• Which of these do we use to indicate a misspelled word or grammatical mistake in a direct quote? [sic]

• Which term describes a deck? Smaller headline that appears directly under the main headline

• In sports journalism, "beat writing" refers to: Covering a specific team or sport regularly

• Which of these are an example of an ethical issue in sports journalism? Accepting gifts from teams or players

• A good sports lead should include: Key elements: top performers and outcome

• The term for putting the most important information first is: Inverted pyramid structure

• Anonymous sources should only be used when: The source's safety is at risk and the information is essential

• Which is the correct way of writing the score of a game in an article? "The Cowboys won, 45-40"

• Which of these terms is an example of a cliché, which we should avoid in our stories? "Gave 110%"

• What is the "lead" in a sports story? The first sentence or paragraph that summarizes key facts

• A sidebar story usually: Provides related but secondary information to the main story

• A feature story in sports journalism usually focuses on: Human-interest stories

• Which of the following is considered hard news in sports reporting? A story on a player who just had a season-ending injury

• Which of these roles would polish a story's writing, check facts, and maintain consistency? Editor

• Which trait describes a byline? The name of the reporter who wrote the story

• Which of these writing concepts is most important in an age of short attention spans? Brevity

• What's the main goal of an investigative sports journalist? Expose wrongdoing or provide accountability

American & World History

• What year was the First Continental Congress held? 1774

• Which country did America acquire land from in the Louisiana Purchase? France

• Who was the 13th President of the United States? Millard Fillmore

• Vermont was admitted to the Union in what order? 14th

• Missouri was admitted to the Union in what order? 24th

• Ohio was admitted to the Union in what order? 17th

• The Embargo Act of 1807 was enacted during whose presidency? Thomas Jefferson

• Which city was home to the first American public library? Boston

• Which explorer is credited with mapping much of the Mississippi River valley for France? Jacques Marquette

• The Articles of Confederation were: The first document to govern the United States before the Constitution

• Which state was Jamestown established in? Virginia

• Where was the First Continental Congress held? Carpenter's Hall

• Which state was the last of the original 13 colonies to ratify the Constitution? Rhode Island

• Maryland was admitted to the Union in what order? 7th

• Who published Poor Richard's Almanack? Benjamin Franklin

• Which U.S. state was admitted to the Union in 1821? Missouri

• Indiana was admitted to the Union in what order? 19th

• Which city served as the first capital of the United States under the Constitution? New York City

• Which early American statesman created the first national financial plan? Alexander Hamilton

• What was another name for the Cumberland Road, which connected the Potomac and Ohio Rivers? National Road

• Illinois was admitted to the Union in what order? 21st

• What feature of the Pantheon's dome allows natural light to illuminate the interior? Oculus

• Which ancient civilization is credited with the first use of paper? China

• Which of these terms described a marketplace and meeting area in ancient Greece? Agora

• Which medieval structure often included "gargoyles" that doubled as what practical feature? Water spouts

• The earliest known maps were often drawn on what medium? Clay tablets

• What type of writing tool did ancient Egyptians commonly use on papyrus? Reed brush

• What natural material did ancient Egyptians use for writing before paper? Papyrus

• Which ancient people invented the concept of zero in mathematics? Mayans

• The ancient Inca road system stretched primarily along which mountain range? Andes

• The philosopher Socrates lived in which ancient city? Athens

• The famous city of Petra was carved into what type of rock? Sandstone

• Which ancient civilization developed cuneiform writing? Sumerians

• Which famous Greek structure used optical illusion to appear perfectly straight? Parthenon

• What made the city of Venice uniquely suited for trade during the Middle Ages? Built on canals with direct sea access

• The city of Machu Picchu was built by which civilization? Inca

• Which Chinese invention had a major impact on world exploration? Compass

• What was the main purpose of the Roman aqueducts? Carrying water into cities

• The Parthenon is located in which city? Athens

• Which civilization used a knot-based system called "quipu" for record-keeping? Inca

• The Mayan calendar was based largely on observations of which planet? Venus

• What was the main function of Roman "hypocaust" systems? Heating buildings

General Geography

• What is the lowest elevation in the U.S.? Death Valley, California

• Which is the largest U.S. state by area? Alaska

• Which state has the deepest lake in the United States? Oregon

• Which U.S. state has the most active volcanoes? Alaska

• Which of these states does NOT border the Atlantic Ocean? Tennessee

• Which two states have capitals with the fewest miles between them? Massachusetts & Rhode Island

• Which U.S. mountain range contains the highest peaks in North America? Alaska Range

• What is the deepest lake in the United States? Crater Lake

• Which U.S. state has the highest natural point east of the Mississippi River? North Carolina

• Which state has the highest average rainfall per year? Hawaii

• Which lake is the largest of the Great Lakes? Lake Superior

• Which river runs through the Grand Canyon? Colorado River

• What river forms most of the border between Indiana and Kentucky? Ohio River

• Which U.S. river forms the border between Oregon and Washington? Columbia River

• Which U.S. state is home to Mount Rushmore? South Dakota

• Which state is famous for the Grand Canyon? Arizona

• Which ocean borders the eastern coast of the United States? Atlantic

• What is the capital of Alaska? Juneau

• What desert covers much of Nevada? Great Basin

• Which U.S. city is the highest in elevation among state capitals? Santa Fe, New Mexico

• Which U.S. mountain range runs from Maine to Georgia? Appalachian Mountains

• What is the longest river in the world? Nile

• What is the term for a narrow strip of land connecting two larger land areas? Isthmus

• Which continent contains the Amazon Rainforest? South America

• Which country has the most volcanoes? Indonesia

• Which is the smallest continent by land area? Antarctica

• Which two continents are entirely in the Western Hemisphere? North America & South America

• What's the largest ocean on earth? Pacific

• Which river flows through Paris? Seine

• What is the capital of Switzerland? Bern

• What is the capital of Brazil? Brasília

• Which country has the largest population in the world? India

• What is the term for a seasonal wind bringing rain in South Asia? Monsoon

• What is the capital of Canada? Ottawa

• What is the deepest ocean trench in the world? Mariana Trench

• Which country below has the most time zones? France

• What type of map shows elevation and landforms? Topographic

• Which ocean is off the east coast of the United States? Atlantic

• What is the driest desert of the options below? Atacama

• Which U.S. state is the largest by area? Alaska

• Which continent is the Sahara Desert located on? Africa

• Which continent has the most countries? Africa

• Which country touches both the Equator and the Tropic of Capricorn? Brazil

• Which of these Asian countries has the most islands? Indonesia

• Which of the countries below share the Iberian Peninsula with Spain? Portugal

• Which of these features of Columbia is NOT true: Has the more than half of the Madeira River within its borders

• Which of these facts about Switzerland are true? Has German, French, Italian, and Romansh as official languages

• Which city lies closest to the Tropic of Capricorn? São Paulo

• Which of the countries below has only one time zone, despite spanning multiple natural time zones? China

• Does London or Lisbon have a capital that's farther west than the other? Lisbon

• Which of these European countries border both the North Sea and the Baltic Sea? Germany

• Which of these are NOT true about the Mediterranean Sea? Is between 2-3 million years old

• Which European country has no land borders but shares a language with Germany? None of the above

• Which European capital sits on islands within a lake that drains into the Baltic Sea? Stockholm

• Which of these facts about Denmark is NOT true? Features the highest point of elevation in Northern Europe

• Which of these countries does the world's largest river flow through? Sudan

• The Ural Mountains separate which of these: Europe and Asia

• Which of these are true about Nepal? Highest average elevation in the world

• Spanish is the official language of which of these African countries? Equatorial Guinea

• Which desert covers most of Mongolia and parts of northern China? Gobi

• The Gulf Stream brings which of these to northwestern Europe? Large amounts of heats from the tropics

• Which Asian river runs through Thailand's capital? Chao Phraya

• Which of these European capitals is the farthest north? Stockholm

History of American Music

• Which instrument is NOT a woodwind? Flugelhorn

• Which instrument is prominently featured in Folk and Bluegrass and can have 4 or 5 strings? Banjo

• Which 20th-century American style of piano uses the left hand playing a single bass note and a chord on alternating beats? Stride

• What does the R in R&B stand for? Rhythm

• Which of these stringed instruments do NOT traditionally use a bow? Timpani

• Which instrument is NOT a stringed instrument? Clarinet

• Which type of uptempo Jazz that spotlights improvisation was pioneered in the 1940s and helped spring hundreds of American artists to international fame? Bebop

• The Blues uses the I, IV, and V chords in a structure of how many bars? 12

• Which genre frequently features improvisation? Jazz

• Tin Pan Alley was located in which city? New York City

• Which chord does the Blues not use as part of its standard looping harmonic structure? IX

• Which instrument is NOT part of the percussion family? Lute

• Which city is known as the birthplace of Jazz? New Orleans

• In the AABA song form, the B stands for what? Bridge

• Which of these terms is most closely associated with a Ballad? Slow

• Which format replaced 78 rpm records in the mid-20th century? LP

• What's another musical term for a Measure? Bar

• Which American city is recognized as the birthplace of Motown? Detroit

• You might hear a "piano roll" in which 20th-century genre? Ragtime

• Which state is most closely associated with the origins of bluegrass music? Kentucky

• Which voice type is the lowest? Alto

• What does "legato" indicate? Smoothly

• Which instrument has three valves? Trumpet

• Which instrument uses a slide? Trombone

• What is the term for the speed of music? Tempo

• What is the term for music performed without instrumentation? A cappella

• Which voice type is the highest? Soprano

• What is a symphony? Large orchestral work

• What is a motif? Short musical idea

• Which of these classical music compositions is a piece for many voices, each often featuring their own individual melody? Fugue

• Which of these male voice types is the highest in range? Countertenor

• Which music typically has an element of improvisation? Jazz

• Which is NOT one of the four main families of the orchestra? Keys

• Which instrument has 3 finger buttons to determine which notes are played? Trumpet

• What does "crescendo" mean? Get louder

• What era was Johann Sebastian Bach part of? Baroque

• What does timbre refer to? Tone color

• What does the term "piano" mean in dynamics? Soft

• What does "Forte" indicate? Loud

• Which of these refer to the volume in a musical piece? Dynamics

• Which instrument belongs to the woodwind family? Flute

• What's the interval between C and G called? Perfect fifth

• How many beats are in a 3/4 measure? 3

• Which tempo marking means to gradually slow down? Rallentando

• How many semitones is a half step? 1

• D.C. stands for what? Da Capo

• Which of these tempos are fastest? Presto

• What is the major third of C? E

• Which is the slowest tempo marking below? Largo

• Which of these indicates to play with a trembling effect? Tremolo

• Which of these indicates a fast tempo? Allegro

• How many semitones are in an octave? 12

• What is the interval between D and F#? major 3rd

• What type of triad is this: C, E, G? None of the above

• If we play a 2-5-1 chord progression in the key of Bb, what would the 5 chord be? F7

• Which tempo marking means "freely"? Rubato

• Which of these keys has the most sharps? C#

• What scale degree is the dominant? 5

• Which range would the "Vivace" tempo marking indicate? 156bpm

• A m7b5 chord is most often substituted for which diatonic "dominant" chord? 5

• Which of these is a standard scale with a flattened seventh note? Mixolydian

• In the key of F major, which of the following is the dominant chord? B7